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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates?
A. managing the increase connected devices
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability
C. providing device choice and support
D. enforcing company usage policies
Answer: D

An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data?
A. Client Summary
B. Posture Status Count
C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics
D. Mobility Client Summary
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. Static WEP
B. CKIP
C. WPA+WPA2
D. 802 1x
Answer: C

When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point?
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK
C. KCK, KEK, TK
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key
Answer: A

A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution?
A. limit of a single device per user
B. restrict allowed devices types
C. allow multiple devices per user
D. minimize client configuration errors
Answer: B


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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C, E

Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: A, C, E

Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C, D

According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports
E. Complete Inventory of all information assets
Answer: A, B, C, D

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.)
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result.
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile.
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x.
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication.
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result.
Answer: A, C, D


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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement will empty the contents of a StringBuilder variable named sb? 
A. sb. deleteAll (); 
B. sb. delete (0, sb. size () ); 
C. sb. delete (0, sb. length () ); 
D. sb. removeAll (); 
Answer: C

Which statement best describes encapsulation? 
A. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that only certain fields and methods of an object are accessible from other objects. 
B. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that their methods are inheritable. 
C. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed with some fields and methods declared as abstract. 
D. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that if a method has an argument MyType x, any subclass of MyType can be passed to that method. 
Answer: A

Which three statements are true about exception handling? 
A. Only unchecked exceptions can be rethrown. 
B. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class are recoverable. 
C. The parameter in a catch block is of Throwable type. 
D. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class must be caught or declared to be thrown. 
E. All subclasses of the Exception class except the RuntimeException class are checked exceptions. 
F. All subclasses of the Error class are checked exceptions and are recoverable. 
Answer: C,E,F

Which two statements are true? 
A. Error class is unextendable. 
B. Error class is extendable. 
C. Error is a RuntimeException. 
D. Error is an Exception. 
E. Error is a Throwable. 
Answer: B,C

Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function 
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors 
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions 
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred 
E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created 
Answer: A,C,D

Which two class definitions fail to compile? 
A. abstract class A3 {private static int i;public void doStuff(){}public A3(){}} 
B. final class A1 {public A1(){}} 
C. public class A2 {private static int i;private A2(){}} 
D. class A4 {protected static final int i;private void doStuff(){}} 
E. final abstract class A5 {protected static int i;void doStuff(){}abstract void doIt();} 
Answer: C,E

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point? 
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key 
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK 
C. KCK, KEK, TK 
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key 
Answer: A

Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC? 
A. classic mobility 
B. new mobility 
C. converged access mobility 
D. auto-anchor mobility 
Answer: C

A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN? 
A. PMF 
B. peer-to-peer blocking 
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 
D. split tunnel 
Answer: A

MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue? 
A. The client devices do not support WPA. 
B. The client devices do not support CCXv5. 
C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional 
D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller. 
Answer: C

Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.) 
A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches. 
B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary. 
C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch. 
D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch. 
E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary. 
F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary. 
Answer: A,E,F

When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? 
A. managing the increase connected devices 
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability 
C. providing device choice and support 
D. enforcing company usage policies 
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP? 
A. Static WEP 
B. CKIP 
C. WPA+WPA2 
D. 802 1x 
Answer: C

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card? 
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 5 
D. 6 
Answer: A

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 
A. FD00::2 
B. 192.168.2.2 
C. FF05::2 
D. 226.10.10.10 
E. 240.1.0.1 
Answer: CE

Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two) 
A. services layer 
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater 
C. access control 
D. QoS marking 
Answer: AC

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? 
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number 
B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number 
C. MDS-A# show host-id 
D. MDS-A# show license host-id 
Answer: D

Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? 
A. shielded twisted-pair cable 
B. coaxial cable 
C. multimode fiber-optic cable 
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable 
Answer: C

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two) 
A. feature vtp 
B. vtp client mode 
C. vtp VLAN 
D. vtp version 
E. vtp static 
Answer: A,D

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) 
A. Virtual Port Channel 
B. Layer 3 
C. Virtual Device Contexts 
D. iSCSI 
E. Fibre Channel 
Answer: BC

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.) 
A. Create 
B. Modify 
C. Migrate 
D. Update 
E. Delete 
F. Export 
G. Purge 
H. Manage 
Answer: A,D,E,F

A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user's phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box 
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box 
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box 
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box 
Answer: C

An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) 
A. Contacts icon 
B. phone icon 
C. person icon 
D. message icon 
E. web video conferencing icon 
Answer: A,B

A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this? 
A. Line Text Label 
B. Alerting Name 
C. External Phone Number Mask 
D. Caller Name 
E. Description 
Answer: A

Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.) 
A. partitions 
B. classes of service 
C. search spaces 
D. user templates 
E. schedules 
Answer: B,D

A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.) 
A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role. 
B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp.
C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp.
D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role.
E. The user account has the Standard CAR role.
Answer: A,B

Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Answer: A

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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-667 exam questions and answers below.
Compared to other enterprise storage systems, which product has made the most changes to be energy efficient? 
A. V7000 with Unified 
B. XIV with 16Gb FICON 
C. V7000 with block only 
D. DS8870 with DC-UPS 
Answer: D

Which product will allow a customer to aggregate, monitor, and recommend optimization for existing storage? 
A. SVC 
B. ESS 
C. IBM Spectrum Control 
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize 
Answer: C

Which key metric drives a customer's disaster recovery strategy? 
A. ROI 
B. RTO 
C. TCA 
D. TCO 
Answer: B

A bank customer has two sites in Italy and France. One site uses IBM storage and the other uses a competitor. 
Which IBM solution is required for block storage when unifying the sites for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Control 
Answer: D

Which characteristic of a customer's server defines the storage device that could be attached? 
A. Form factor 
B. Clock speed 
C. Memory size 
D. Operating system 
Answer: D

What simplifies customer training requirements for storage management across multiple IBM enterprise offerings? 
A. Redbooks 
B. Storage GUIs 
C. DS Storage Manager 
D. Directed Maintenance Package 
Answer: B

Which type of tape should an IBM sales specialist recommend to an enterprise customer? 
A. 3480 
B. DLT 
C. LTO 
D. SLC 
Answer: C

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Share some MCSA 70-765 exam questions and answers below.
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 named SRV2014 that has a single tempdb database file. The tempdb database file is eight gigabytes (GB) in size. You install a SQL Server 2016 instance named SQL Server 2016 by using default settings. The new instance has eight logical processor cores. You plan to migrate the databases from SRV2014 to SRV2016. You need to configure the tempdb database on SRV2016. The solution must minimize the number of future tempdb autogrowth events. What should you do? 
A. Increase the size of the tempdb datafile to 8 GB. In the tempdb database, set the value of the MAXDOP property to8. 
B. Increase the size of the tempdb data files to1 GB. 
C. Add seven additional tempdb data files. In the tempdb database, set the value of the MAXDOP property to8. 
D. Setthe value for the autogrowth setting for the tempdb data file to128megabytes (MB). Add seven additional tempdb data files and set the autogrowth value to128 MB. 
Answer: B

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals. Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines. You need to create the templates. 
Solution: You use Visual Studio to create a JSON template that defines the deployment and configuration settings for the SQL Server environment.Does the solution meet the goal? 
A. Yes 
B. No 
Answer: A 

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