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Share some CCIE 400-201 exam questions and answers below. Which are the two advantages if an ISP chooses a platform that runs Cisco IOS-XR Software instead of Cisco IOS Software? (Choose two.) A.Cisco IOS XR Software functions as a message-passing operating system. B.The system's scheduler is priority-based. C.The context switching is based on Cisco Express Forwarding. D.VoIP traffic is hardware-processed for real-time response. E.Communication between client and server is realized by a dedicated mechanism. Answer: AB
Which are the two advantages if an ISP chooses a platform that runs Cisco IOS-XR Software instead of Cisco IOS Software? (Choose two.) A.Cisco IOS XR Software functions as a message-passing operating system. B.The system's scheduler is priority-based. C.The context switching is based on Cisco Express Forwarding. D.VoIP traffic is hardware-processed for real-time response. E.Communication between client and server is realized by a dedicated mechanism. Answer: AB
REP has been deployed in a segment. A network operations engineer notices that a segment port does not become operational. What is the root cause of this issue? A.More than one neighbor has the same segment ID. B.A neighbor is using a different port ID. C.A local port is in alternate port state. D.A neighbor port is in blocked state. Answer: A
Which two BGP mechanisms solve the full-mesh paradigm? (Choose two) A. Confederation B. Router policy filtering C. Hierarchical VPLS D. MPLS VPN E. Route reflectors F. BGP link state G. Community SOO Answer: A, E
In IEEE 802. lad deployments, which three represent valid port modes? (Choose three) A.NNIS-port B.NNI C.UNIS-port D.NNIC-port E.UNIC-port F.UNIT-port Answer: BCE
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Share some CCIE Data Center 400-151 exam questions and answers below. Which cisco UCS Director features enables you to view the REST API URL for every report display in cisco UCS Director? A. Orchestration features set B. REST API Brower C. Automation feature set D. Report metadata Answer: D
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Answer:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Answer:
Refer to me exhibit.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using VLAN Manager. B. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using PVLANs. a. when I hear segregation I think PVLANS C. The Fabric Feature cannot be used in this topology under any circumstances. D. Service profiles should contain a single vNIC per fabric, trunking VLAN 100-250. a. Not sure about a single vNIC but the other option says two NICS and service profiles use vNICS. Also you can configure multiple vlans per VNIC and enable fabric failover for the redundancy. E. service profiles should contain two NICs per fabric, with one trunking VLAN 100-150 and another trunking VLAN 200-250. F. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using pin groups. Answer: B,D
Which three statements about direct-attached storage are true? (Choose three) A. The fabric interconnect must be in Fibre Channel switch mode. B. If you connect to Cisco NX-05 on the fabric interconnect, you can see the flogi by using the show flogi database vsan Command. C. For maintenance of direct attached storage, you must define a maintenance policy. D. The fabric interconnect must be end-host mode. E. you need not map an FCoE VLAN when creating the storage VSAN. F. to configure the zoning, you must create a storage connection policy. Answer: A,B,F
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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below. Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy? (Choose two.) A. event register keyword B. body C. environment must defines D. namespace import E. entry status F. exit status Answer: A, B
Which two statements about IPsec VTIs are true? (Choose two) A. Dynamic VTIs allow you to mix proxy types. B. The dynamic VTI is a multipoint interface that can support multiple IPsec SAs. C. The IKE SA can be bound to both the VTI and the crypto map in the router. D. Static VTIs can use the "IP any any" traffic selector only. E. The IPsec transform set must be configured in transport mode. F. Static VTIs can encapsulate both IPv4 and IPv6 packets, but IPv4 can carry IPv4 packets and IPv6 can carry IPv6 packets. Answer: C, D
Which TCP features allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost? A. flow control B. sliding window C. fast recovery D. selective acknowledgment Answer: D
Which three factors does Cisco PfR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose three) A. reachability B. delay C. administrative distance D. packet size E. loss F. quality of service Answer: A, B , E
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two conclusions can you draw from this output (choose two) A. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an APR entry for the device at 10.9.132.254. B. The packet was source-routed. C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254. D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 E. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 Answer: C, E
Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the interval is set? A. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet updates. B. The LSA is added to the OSPF database. C. The LSA is ignored. D. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow its LSA packet updates. Answer: C
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Share some CCIE 400-051 exam questions and answers below. Refer to the exhibit.
A customer is configuring CAR costing for call. When the customer runs the costing reports calls are not being tagged correctly. Which two changes allow proper costing to be determined for these calls? (Choose two) A. The toll free area code field must be updated to include all toll free area codes B. A new local pattern must be added with the pattern "k!" C. A new pattern must be added for the 914 and 625 area codecs D. The items are out of order and must be sorted with the most specific at the top E. Overlapping area codec on the trunks must be removed F. All external patterns must be change to include the outside access code Answer: AB
Refer to the exhibit.
The MGCP debugs were captured on a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway registered to a Cisco Unified CM. Assume that this gateway had no active calls and will not take any new calls for the next 3 minutes. What time it will send the next NTFY message to the Cisco Unified CM? A. Jan 10 05:56:35.130 B. Jan 10 05:55:45.130 C. Jan 10 05:55:50.130 D. Jan 10 05:56:05.130 E. Jan 10 05:55:40.130 Answer: C
Which two statements about virtual SNR in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express are true? (Choose two.) A. The SNR DN must be configured as SCCP. B. Calls cannot be pulled back from the phone associated with the DN. C. Ephone hunt groups are supported. D. The virtual SNR DN must be assigned to an ephone. E. Music on hold is supported for trunk and line side calls. Answer: AB
What is the maximum number of option 66 IP addresses that a Cisco IP SCCP phone will accept and use from a DHCP server? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
A CUBE Cluster is working in HSRP box-to-box failover model. When the phone A calls Cisco WebEx meeting server to start a conference session, no DTMF tones are recognized. Which configuration change will fix this problem when configured on both CUBEs? A. Voice-class sip asymmetric payload dtmf in dial-peer configuration B. Dtmf-relay rtp-nte digitdrop in the dial-peer configuration C. Media flow-around under voice service voip configuration D. Modem relay nse payload-type101 underglobal sip configuration E. Asymmetric payload full configured under global sip configuration Answer: E
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Share some HCNP-WLAN H12-322-ENU exam questions and answers below. How many APs can ACU2 manage? A. 512 B. 1024 C. 2048 D. 4096 Answer: C
Which of the following is typical WLAN high-density access scenario? A. Wireless cash register B. Mobile ward-round C. stadiums D. asset location Answer: C
Assuming that the Root AP is installed on a 30-meter tower with coordinates (0m, 0m), four Leaf APs are at (200m, 100m), (200m, 0m), (800m, 400m) and (1000m, 0m) four locations on the 7-meter utility pole, all devices use the AP6510DN, and the antenna is the same. Each Leaf AP requires 1Mbps bandwidth, local EIRP is unlimited. For Root AP, which of the following antennas is optimal? A. 11dBi_H60°_V30° B. 27dBi_H5°_V5° C. 18dBi_H15°_V15° D. 13dBi_H15°_V60° Answer: A
Which of the following statements on the indoor distribution devices are right? (Multiple choice) A. combiner can compound multiplexed input signal to one way to output, reverse filter and separate the mixed signal B. One signal can be divided into multi-channel signal by Power splitter to output C. The coupler is a power divider with unequal output power that removes the desired signal energy from the mainline to the remote antenna and allocates more signal energy to the proximal antenna D. WLAN indoor distribution network generally use microstrip power splitter, relative to the cavity power splitter, power is low, and cost is low. Answer: ABD
Which of the following statement about the WLAN indoor distribution system and the existing operator's indoor distribution Combiner is wrong? A. WLAN signal and GSM, CDMA, 3G and other signals are not in the same frequency and the combiner has a high degree of isolation, so there is no interference between the different band signals B. The existing indoor distribution devices (power splitter/coupler/antenna) also need to support WLAN 2.4G band, otherwise need to replace the indoor distribution devices C. Operator signals can meet the coverage requirements, access to WLAN signals can also meet generally D. There is a shunt-wound topological relationship between the indoor distribution APs, and multiple APs are not allowed to install in series on a branch. Answer: C
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below. A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution? A. limit of a single device per user B. restrict allowed devices types C. allow multiple devices per user D. minimize client configuration errors Answer: B
When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? A. managing the increase connected devices B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability C. providing device choice and support D. enforcing company usage policies Answer: D
A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network? A. UNII-3 channels B. UNII-1 channels C. 802.11b channels D. 2.4 GHz channels E. UMII-2 channels F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13 Answer: E
A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN? A. PMF B. peer-to-peer blocking C. Cisco Centralized Key Management D. split tunnel Answer: A
An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data? A. Client Summary B. Posture Status Count C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics D. Mobility Client Summary Answer: D
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An engineer is using various techniques to discover and isolate rogues on the network. For which technique must the engineer consider legal ramifications? A.rogue AP containment B.RF detection C.switch port tracing D.wire detection E.Cisco Prime Infrastructure location services Answer: A
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur? A.debug capwap detail enable B.debug capwap errors enable C.debug capwap info enable D.debug capwap events enable E.debug capwap packet enable F.debug capwap payload enable Answer: B
Which channel width is the maximum that can be obtained by bonding two 802.11 ac subchannels according to US regulations? A.160 MHz B.120 MHz C.84 MHz D.240 MHz Answer: A
Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert? A.UDP 5246 and 5247 B.UDP 37540 and 37550 C.TCP 16113 and 16114 D.TCP 37540 and 37550 E.TCP 5246 and 5247 F.UDP 16113and 16114 Answer: D
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